Jesus and The Law of Moses
Introduction. From the moment Moses stood with Jesus at the transfiguration, God made it clear that Jesus and His words were far greater. When Peter sought to make tabernacles to honor them equally, God rebuked him stating “this is My beloved Son, hear Him.” (Matt. 17:1-5) After His resurrection, God gave Jesus “all authority in heaven and on earth.” There was none left for Moses and his law. Jesus had come into the world to take “away the first that He may establish the second.” At His crucifixion, Jesus took Moses law “out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.” (Col. 2:14-15; Heb. 10:9). At that time, the purpose of the old law changed from a covenant with authority to: “the law is become our tutor (to bring us) to Christ,” “but now faith that is come, we are no longer under a tutor.” (Gal. 3:24-25). Paul summed all of this up saying: “God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law.” (Gal. 4:4-5).
Jesus was born and lived under the first covenant. Then, after He fulfilled all its demands, He removed it. Yet He did live and die under the Law of Moses. He was “born under the law,” and had to perfectly keep it until all was fulfilled at His crucifixion. He was circumcised the eighth day, kept the Sabbath, celebrated the feasts, offered sacrifices and ate only the food allowed under the Law. He was preaching to the Jews while they were still under the Law. In His earthly ministry, He taught “till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled.” (Mt. 5:18-19). The Old covenant was absolute and nothing could be set aside until Jesus died. Jesus was a Jew born under the Law.
This creates some important issues that must be discussed since this has become the foundation of error today. Does this mean all Jesus’ teachings were only for the Jews under the Law? Should we see the books of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John as the final books of the Old Covenant nailed to the cross or a part of the new covenant? Did Jesus preach the gospel or Law of Moses to Israel? Did the gospel begin when Peter preached the first sermon after Jesus death? Are Jesus words in the Sermon on the Mount regarding divorce words of the Law or words of the gospel?
Are His words regarding divorce to be ignored as part of the Old Covenant or obeyed by Christians as part of the new covenant? Contrasting what the Jews were practicing with God’s will, He said: “it has been said, 'Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.' But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.” (Mt. 5:31-32). In order to remove the force of these words, some are preaching in the church that these words were never meant for Christians, but were nailed to the cross with the rest of the Law. But is this a fair interpretation? Does it never say that Jesus preached the gospel to the Jews? When do the Scriptures say that the gospel began?
The gospel began with John the Baptist. There are three reasons why we know the authority of the gospel began when John started preaching. First, the Holy Spirit after quoting prophecy stated exactly when the gospel started. “The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, as it is written in the prophets... John came, who baptized in the wilderness and preached the baptism of repentance unto remission of sins." (Mk. 1:1-4; Lk. 3:3-6). As soon as John began preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins, the gospel began. Since this is how the book of Mark begins, it should be obvious that the things Jesus taught were part of the gospel.
Second, Jesus plainly stated that the Law was exclusively in effect until the coming of John. John marked the transition where the Law was ending and the gospel beginning: “the law and the prophets (were) until John: from that time the gospel of the kingdom of God is preached,” (Lk. 16:16). Thus the four gospel accounts record the transition, giving greater emphasis to the gospel that was preached than the law that He lived under.
Third, in His final week on earth, “as He taught the people in the temple and preached the gospel:” “the chief priests and the scribes, together with the elders, confronted Him.” They wanted to know “by what authority are You doing these things,” and “who gave You this authority?” This was a legitimate question since many of the things Jesus was teaching were not in the Law. He had taught on church discipline, commanding His disciples to “tell it to the church.” He had also taught “the hour is coming when you will neither on this mountain, nor in Jerusalem, worship the Father.” (Mt. 18:15-17; Jn. 4:21). Where was He getting His authority to teach such things? But their question was not asked with sincerity, so Jesus placed these men into a difficult dilemma by asking. “The baptism of John — was it from heaven or from men?” (Lk. 20:1-8). Because of prejudice and fear they wouldn’t answer. Yet the answer is obvious! There was no authority for John’s baptism in the Law of Moses. What right did John have to offer remission of sins by being baptized into water, when Moses said: “You shall not add to the word which I command you, nor take from it.” (Deut. 4:2). If John was preaching the truth, then the authority for that change had to come from heaven. Hence, God was already introducing the authority of the New Covenant beginning with the forerunner of the Messiah introducing the premier ordinance that would “make disciples” allow them to “be born again,” and “be saved,” Hence, the authority of preaching the gospel began with John.
When Jesus was teaching the Jews in their synagogues on the Sabbath day, He was not teaching them the Law of Moses: “Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, preaching the gospel of the kingdom.” (Mt. 4:23; 9:25). “Now after John was delivered up, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God, 15 and saying, The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe in the gospel." (Mk. 1:14-15). When He sent out the twelve: “He sent them to preach the kingdom of God” So they departed and went through the towns, preaching the gospel and healing everywhere. (Lk. 9:1-6).
If Jesus was not preaching the words of the New Covenant, what meaning can we derive from His stern warning? “He who rejects Me, and does not receive My words, has that which judges him — the word that I have spoken will judge him in the last day.” (Jn. 12:48). If “the words I have spoken” are to be the “judge in the last day,” they can’t be part of the old law done away at the cross. What John had recorded concerning the words of Jesus are as binding in the gospel he wrote as they are in the letters he later wrote.
Conclusion. John the Baptist was the forerunner of the Messiah and the first to preach the gospel of the kingdom. Jesus was preaching this gospel in the synagogues and in the temple. The gospel accounts were written more than 30 years after His death and the establishment of the church. Would those receiving these words take them as Old Law? Only if they had specifically stated that Jesus words in these books were part of the old covenant would we be safe to set them aside. Consider the irony of telling Jesus disciples to ignore His words after Jesus said they would be our judge on the last day. Jesus words hold just as much authority in the gospels as they do in the epistles (Jn. 12:48).
Jesus was born and lived under the first covenant. Then, after He fulfilled all its demands, He removed it. Yet He did live and die under the Law of Moses. He was “born under the law,” and had to perfectly keep it until all was fulfilled at His crucifixion. He was circumcised the eighth day, kept the Sabbath, celebrated the feasts, offered sacrifices and ate only the food allowed under the Law. He was preaching to the Jews while they were still under the Law. In His earthly ministry, He taught “till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled.” (Mt. 5:18-19). The Old covenant was absolute and nothing could be set aside until Jesus died. Jesus was a Jew born under the Law.
This creates some important issues that must be discussed since this has become the foundation of error today. Does this mean all Jesus’ teachings were only for the Jews under the Law? Should we see the books of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John as the final books of the Old Covenant nailed to the cross or a part of the new covenant? Did Jesus preach the gospel or Law of Moses to Israel? Did the gospel begin when Peter preached the first sermon after Jesus death? Are Jesus words in the Sermon on the Mount regarding divorce words of the Law or words of the gospel?
Are His words regarding divorce to be ignored as part of the Old Covenant or obeyed by Christians as part of the new covenant? Contrasting what the Jews were practicing with God’s will, He said: “it has been said, 'Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.' But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.” (Mt. 5:31-32). In order to remove the force of these words, some are preaching in the church that these words were never meant for Christians, but were nailed to the cross with the rest of the Law. But is this a fair interpretation? Does it never say that Jesus preached the gospel to the Jews? When do the Scriptures say that the gospel began?
The gospel began with John the Baptist. There are three reasons why we know the authority of the gospel began when John started preaching. First, the Holy Spirit after quoting prophecy stated exactly when the gospel started. “The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, as it is written in the prophets... John came, who baptized in the wilderness and preached the baptism of repentance unto remission of sins." (Mk. 1:1-4; Lk. 3:3-6). As soon as John began preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins, the gospel began. Since this is how the book of Mark begins, it should be obvious that the things Jesus taught were part of the gospel.
Second, Jesus plainly stated that the Law was exclusively in effect until the coming of John. John marked the transition where the Law was ending and the gospel beginning: “the law and the prophets (were) until John: from that time the gospel of the kingdom of God is preached,” (Lk. 16:16). Thus the four gospel accounts record the transition, giving greater emphasis to the gospel that was preached than the law that He lived under.
Third, in His final week on earth, “as He taught the people in the temple and preached the gospel:” “the chief priests and the scribes, together with the elders, confronted Him.” They wanted to know “by what authority are You doing these things,” and “who gave You this authority?” This was a legitimate question since many of the things Jesus was teaching were not in the Law. He had taught on church discipline, commanding His disciples to “tell it to the church.” He had also taught “the hour is coming when you will neither on this mountain, nor in Jerusalem, worship the Father.” (Mt. 18:15-17; Jn. 4:21). Where was He getting His authority to teach such things? But their question was not asked with sincerity, so Jesus placed these men into a difficult dilemma by asking. “The baptism of John — was it from heaven or from men?” (Lk. 20:1-8). Because of prejudice and fear they wouldn’t answer. Yet the answer is obvious! There was no authority for John’s baptism in the Law of Moses. What right did John have to offer remission of sins by being baptized into water, when Moses said: “You shall not add to the word which I command you, nor take from it.” (Deut. 4:2). If John was preaching the truth, then the authority for that change had to come from heaven. Hence, God was already introducing the authority of the New Covenant beginning with the forerunner of the Messiah introducing the premier ordinance that would “make disciples” allow them to “be born again,” and “be saved,” Hence, the authority of preaching the gospel began with John.
When Jesus was teaching the Jews in their synagogues on the Sabbath day, He was not teaching them the Law of Moses: “Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, preaching the gospel of the kingdom.” (Mt. 4:23; 9:25). “Now after John was delivered up, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God, 15 and saying, The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe in the gospel." (Mk. 1:14-15). When He sent out the twelve: “He sent them to preach the kingdom of God” So they departed and went through the towns, preaching the gospel and healing everywhere. (Lk. 9:1-6).
If Jesus was not preaching the words of the New Covenant, what meaning can we derive from His stern warning? “He who rejects Me, and does not receive My words, has that which judges him — the word that I have spoken will judge him in the last day.” (Jn. 12:48). If “the words I have spoken” are to be the “judge in the last day,” they can’t be part of the old law done away at the cross. What John had recorded concerning the words of Jesus are as binding in the gospel he wrote as they are in the letters he later wrote.
Conclusion. John the Baptist was the forerunner of the Messiah and the first to preach the gospel of the kingdom. Jesus was preaching this gospel in the synagogues and in the temple. The gospel accounts were written more than 30 years after His death and the establishment of the church. Would those receiving these words take them as Old Law? Only if they had specifically stated that Jesus words in these books were part of the old covenant would we be safe to set them aside. Consider the irony of telling Jesus disciples to ignore His words after Jesus said they would be our judge on the last day. Jesus words hold just as much authority in the gospels as they do in the epistles (Jn. 12:48).