What does "but I say unto you" mean?
Introduction. Our good question has reference to the famous expression spoken by Jesus, "but I say unto you," found in Matthew 5: 21-48.
One explanation is that Jesus is challenging the actual teaching of the Law of Moses. It is obvious that Jesus is placing his teaching in contrast to some teaching. Verses 21, 22; 27,28; 31, 32; 38, 39; and 43, 44 contain the contrasts. Notice Jesus says, "ye have heard" and "it hath been said," not "it is written," as would have been the case regarding the Law of Moses (see Matt. 4: 4, 7, 10). The law never taught "Thou shalt love thy neighbor, and hate thine enemy," one of the contrasts (vss. 43, 44). Moreover, Jesus has just explained that he did not come to "collide" with the law (vss. 17, 18). Jesus respected and kept the law, kept it sinlessly (Gal. 4: 4, Heb. 4: 15).
Another explanation is Jesus is contrasting the perverted oral traditions of the Jews with the true moral pronouncements of the law. I suggest this explanation is correct. It is true that Jesus does present a more sublime and spiritual explanation and application of God's moral laws to the Jews than had been commonly experienced (see vss. 22, 28, 32, 34, 39, 44 ff.). However, he is not in conflict with the law God gave to the Jewish Nation (Deut. 5: 1-3).
Jesus had no tolerance for false doctrine and he sought to challenge it on every occasion (see Mk. 7). The Sermon on the Mount, in which our famous "but I say unto you" is found, is an expose of the doctrinal perversions of the Pharisees (5: 19 20). The Law of Moses, as a system, was "nailed to the cross" (Col. 2: 14, ff.). Jesus fulfilled the law (Matt. 5: 18, Rom. 10: 4). However, God's universal truths continue in Jesus' law on a much higher and consequential scale (Gal. 6: 2, Rom. 13, John 15: 12, Heb. 10: 25 ff.).
One explanation is that Jesus is challenging the actual teaching of the Law of Moses. It is obvious that Jesus is placing his teaching in contrast to some teaching. Verses 21, 22; 27,28; 31, 32; 38, 39; and 43, 44 contain the contrasts. Notice Jesus says, "ye have heard" and "it hath been said," not "it is written," as would have been the case regarding the Law of Moses (see Matt. 4: 4, 7, 10). The law never taught "Thou shalt love thy neighbor, and hate thine enemy," one of the contrasts (vss. 43, 44). Moreover, Jesus has just explained that he did not come to "collide" with the law (vss. 17, 18). Jesus respected and kept the law, kept it sinlessly (Gal. 4: 4, Heb. 4: 15).
Another explanation is Jesus is contrasting the perverted oral traditions of the Jews with the true moral pronouncements of the law. I suggest this explanation is correct. It is true that Jesus does present a more sublime and spiritual explanation and application of God's moral laws to the Jews than had been commonly experienced (see vss. 22, 28, 32, 34, 39, 44 ff.). However, he is not in conflict with the law God gave to the Jewish Nation (Deut. 5: 1-3).
Jesus had no tolerance for false doctrine and he sought to challenge it on every occasion (see Mk. 7). The Sermon on the Mount, in which our famous "but I say unto you" is found, is an expose of the doctrinal perversions of the Pharisees (5: 19 20). The Law of Moses, as a system, was "nailed to the cross" (Col. 2: 14, ff.). Jesus fulfilled the law (Matt. 5: 18, Rom. 10: 4). However, God's universal truths continue in Jesus' law on a much higher and consequential scale (Gal. 6: 2, Rom. 13, John 15: 12, Heb. 10: 25 ff.).